On Wealth

Is the possession of wealth inherently immoral?

The following is an exploration of the morality of wealth from a Biblical context. While it is a good-faith discussion of the topic, it is not meant to be exhaustive.

Objection 1. It seems that when one is in need and another is not, it is wrong for him with wealth to withhold from him without. For what claim does one have to his property except that it was given to him by God? And does not God require charitable giving both in his law and by the example of his Son, Jesus Christ? As the Apostle James writes, “Suppose a brother or a sister is without clothes and daily food. If one of you says to them, “Go in peace; keep warm and well fed,” but does nothing about their physical needs, what good is it? In the same way, faith by itself, if it is not accompanied by action, is dead.” (James 2:15–17) Thus to possess wealth while are those still in need is immoral.

Objection 2. Further, it seems that the means by which one obtains wealth is inherently immoral, therefore making its possession immoral by extension. For how is wealth accumulated but through capital? That is, the owners of capital lay claim to the product of their laborers, and grow wealthy as a result. But wealth is the product of labor, and belongs to those who labor for it. As Karl Marx makes clear, When a capitalist takes the benefit of…